I am starting this discussion for those who want to improve their knowledge of grammar. Dear learners! If you have any questions, I'll be glad to answer to them.
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Hi, Sania! The first example is the Present Perfect Simple, Passive voice, the third person, singular while the second one is the Present Perfect Continuous, Active voice, the third person, singular. Here are some other examples:
1. This work has been done it time.
He has just been told about that.
She has been informed about the meeting.
2. It has been snowing for a week.
He has been waiting for me since 2 p.m.
She has been thinking about him all day long.
saniya fatima said:
i get stuck that why r we using ( it has been done) while on the other side using (it has been raining) i know the 2nd example is present perfect cont tense .. but what about the 1st one??
hi,Saniya fatima..according to ur first example,, it shows the passive form for present perfect tense..just follow this rule for that thing(it,she,he with has +been+past participle)..whereas You,They,We,I with have+been+past participle) for example,{the magazine has been sold by millioms people} or{forms soccer have been played for thousands of years}.. thanks,,i'm alhashidi,haaaa
saniya fatima said:
i get stuck that why r we using ( it has been done) while on the other side using (it has been raining) i know the 2nd example is present perfect cont tense .. but what about the 1st one??
thanks Tanya!!!!for the obvious explanation,. Actually, it was very beneficial for me in improving my english's standard,so i would like to ask again by this following question>>>>>>>
could u just show me ?wher is the mean verb in this sentence(we have to write the sentence on the board?)i kindly apperciate your effort highly,,ha
i get stuck that why r we using ( it has been done) while on the other side using (it has been raining) i know the 2nd example is present perfect cont tense .. but what about the 1st one??
Hi, Sania! You see, what you are asking about means that I have to type a book here. I can't do it. But, on the other hand, I can give you some idea about that.
A sentence in the Active Voice means that the action is fulfilled by a subject. A Passive voice sentence means that the action is fulfilled by an object. For example:
My mother cooked dinner (Active) Dinner was cooked by my mother (Passive)
Direct and indirect (reported) speech.
Direct speech:
He said: "I am leaving tomorrow".
Indirect speech:
He said he was leaving the next day
Please, ask me more particular questions for me to able to answer to them.
saniya fatima said:
i wanna know about active and passive voice and direct and in direct speech..
Hi, my dear friend Farid! The first and the third sentences are right if you mean that you talk on the sellular phone and you are on the way to the caller. However, it is better to say
I am on my way or
I am half-way (it is even better if you are coming from far)
If the distance is very short, it is better to use the third sentence (e.g, if the caller is near your house (I mean outside, in the yard, on the street) and you are still inside)
faridahmad said:
hello my dear friend Tanya...i need to know which sentens is correct....... when some one asks me on the phone....where are you farid........? shall i say him or her like this?
1- i am on the way.
2- i am on way.
3- i am coming.
Hi, Alhashdi! First of all, I should say I can't answer all questions immediately. I have to do something for living and I am quite a busy person. So, I answer when I have some spare time.
Well, as to your question. "to have to" is not a modal verb. It is a synonym of a modal verb. Such verbs are sometimes called "pseudomodal", that means they express modality but are used like the rest of verbs (I mean tenses, number, persons). Pseudomodal verds can be used in the Simple and Rerfect Tenses. They are always followed by the infinitive (not gerund) although there are some exceptions. They can't be used in the Progressive or Perfect Progressive Tenses. "has to" is the third person, singular (i.e., he, she, it). "Have to" is a synonym of the modal verb "must". However, in the Present they are a little different. "Must" expresses actual necessity while "have to" describes forced or stimulated necessity. In the Present we don't use "must" for the second person unless we mean an order. However in this case, we can use "have to" meaning that one must do it. Here are a few examples:
I have to go! (We usually say so if we want to stop the conversation and escape. It is OK. It is polite)
You have to take your hat off. You can't wear it here (Means, that according to our traditions men shouldn't wear hats at such places, e.g., in the church, bar, restaurant, etc.)
He has to work hard (Means, he may not like that but he ought to)
Do you have to go there?
She doesn't have to cook herself (Means, there is no need to do that)
If it is not clear, please, ask me more particular questions
alhashdi said:
Hi Tanay.. I would like to ask about a thing which i faced in grammar. It is about have to and has to .Are they model verb? your cooperation highly needed.. thanks
Hi Tanay.. I would like to ask about a thing which i faced in grammar. It is about have to and has to .Are they model verb? your cooperation highly needed.. thanks
Hi, Farid! Don't believe people who say it is too late for you to learn. 30 is not much, believe me! I'd like to tell you that this academic year I teach a man who is 54 and a woman who is 45. They both learn well. Your age is out of the question here. The reason is different. You need some system in learning English. For example, grammar should be learned in the particular sequence. But anyway, your English is quite understandable. Just don't give up.
faridahmad said:
thank you dear friend Tanya. for answering to my question. i am trying to learn english but i cannot do this . i am so sad about that i cannot correct my english.....sometimes,I despair all people can speak english but i cann't.........it is so bad for me...some person one day told me you are old man (30) years old farid. you cann't learn english . and they told me ...that a big parrot cann't learn speak. I don't know what i do to learn english very well , I mean which way is easy to learn english... have a nice day .
farid ahmad
Tanya said:
Hi, Poor love! You should use gerund but there are 2 other mistakes.
1.We should use "the" before the names of organizations where we work or study. The exception is: school (without article) 2. In this sentence you obviously need different tense. Most probably, it is the Present Perfect Tense. It may be The Simple Past if you mean the past action.
So, the correct sentence is:
I have started (or started) going to the university.
poor_love said:
hello dear Tanya, if i say, i start going to university. or if i say, i start to go to university. which one is correct?
Replies
1. This work has been done it time.
He has just been told about that.
She has been informed about the meeting.
2. It has been snowing for a week.
He has been waiting for me since 2 p.m.
She has been thinking about him all day long.
saniya fatima said:
saniya fatima said:
could u just show me ?wher is the mean verb in this sentence(we have to write the sentence on the board?)i kindly apperciate your effort highly,,ha
A sentence in the Active Voice means that the action is fulfilled by a subject. A Passive voice sentence means that the action is fulfilled by an object. For example:
My mother cooked dinner (Active)
Dinner was cooked by my mother (Passive)
Direct and indirect (reported) speech.
Direct speech:
He said: "I am leaving tomorrow".
Indirect speech:
He said he was leaving the next day
Please, ask me more particular questions for me to able to answer to them.
saniya fatima said:
I am on my way or
I am half-way (it is even better if you are coming from far)
If the distance is very short, it is better to use the third sentence (e.g, if the caller is near your house (I mean outside, in the yard, on the street) and you are still inside)
faridahmad said:
Well, as to your question. "to have to" is not a modal verb. It is a synonym of a modal verb. Such verbs are sometimes called "pseudomodal", that means they express modality but are used like the rest of verbs (I mean tenses, number, persons). Pseudomodal verds can be used in the Simple and Rerfect Tenses. They are always followed by the infinitive (not gerund) although there are some exceptions. They can't be used in the Progressive or Perfect Progressive Tenses. "has to" is the third person, singular (i.e., he, she, it). "Have to" is a synonym of the modal verb "must". However, in the Present they are a little different. "Must" expresses actual necessity while "have to" describes forced or stimulated necessity. In the Present we don't use "must" for the second person unless we mean an order. However in this case, we can use "have to" meaning that one must do it. Here are a few examples:
I have to go! (We usually say so if we want to stop the conversation and escape. It is OK. It is polite)
You have to take your hat off. You can't wear it here (Means, that according to our traditions men shouldn't wear hats at such places, e.g., in the church, bar, restaurant, etc.)
He has to work hard (Means, he may not like that but he ought to)
Do you have to go there?
She doesn't have to cook herself (Means, there is no need to do that)
If it is not clear, please, ask me more particular questions
alhashdi said:
faridahmad said:
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