Replies

  • Farid asks: "What is the difference between "could do" and "could have done" and when to use this or that form?"

    It is a good question. "Could" is the most problematic modal verb. It can be used in both forms but meanings are different.

    COULD + infinitive without "to"

    1. In Present tense we use this form when we want to make our request softer, more polite (mostly when we talk to peole we don't know, old people, those who occupy official positions). For examle:

    Could I talk to Mr. Brown? (when you are callind an office or coming to some place where you are not known)
    Could you tell me how to get to....? ( on the street)
    Could you make me a favor? (no matter who you are applying to because you are asking for a favor)

    2. In the Past Tense this form means:

    a) that one was able to do something in the past:

    I could drive at the age of 15.

    b) that you are almost sure that the action didn't take place (interrogative and negative forms):

    Could he be there yesterday? (I don't believe, it is unlikely)
    He couldn't be there yesterday! ( same)

    COULD + Rerfect Infinitive without "to"

    We use it in Past tense in the following cases:

    1. When we want to say that the action could take place but didn't:

    He could have entered the university last year (but he didn't)

    2. When we want to say that we wouldn't have been able to do something if we had even wanted to (in negative form):

    I couldn't have killed that man if I had even hated him

    3. In negative form it also means we are almost sure that we or someome else didn't do something:

    I couldn't have noticed you in the crowd ( maens: Most probably, I didn't notice you in the crowd)

    4. When we want to convey reproach with irony:

    They could have invited us to the yesterday's party! (but they didn't!)

    Is it clear now?


    himhttp://my.englishclub.com/group/practiseenglishwithtanya/forum/topics/what-do-you-want-to-know-about?page=7&commentId=2524315%3AComment%3A178454&x=1#
  • I have already answered this question. See page 3 of this discussion, last reply. As to "had" it is used in the past tenses. For example:

    He had nothing to do. (Simple Past)

    Lieza said:
    I am confuse about using the "have", "has" and "had". In my understanding, "had" we use if in past tense and must before the verb, am i right? Can you explain with simple example so that i can understand.

    Thank you.
    Liza
  • Hello Tanya!
    I am so glad to meet you, you are explaining very well, You are right, we have the grammar books but sometimes it s very difficult to understand everything, you are like a live example for me, thank you you spend your time on us.
    As for me I have a little quesions, let's begin with it:
    I know the meaning of the modal verbs, I know a lot about them, but please explain the difference between ,, should'' and ,,ought to'', tell me some few words about ,, need'', I need your explanation, after what , I am sure, it would be easy for me to use them correctl y.
    bye for now
  • I am confuse about using the "have", "has" and "had". In my understanding, "had" we use if in past tense and must before the verb, am i right? Can you explain with simple example so that i can understand.

    Thank you.
    Liza
  • Linda asks: "Hi Tanya
    I would like to asking you about Adjective.
    An adjective modifies a noun or pronoun by describing identifying
    a quantifying words. An adjective usually precedes the noun or the
    pronoun which is modifies
    Please suggestion and let me know as soon as possible

    Thank you
    Linda k"


    Linda! Here is my answer. Adjectives really describe quantity but, more often, quality of nouns. We use them before nouns. For example:

    an interesting book
    a true friend

    However, in many cases we use adjectives together with pronouns as definitions of nouns. For example:

    that nice girl
    my good friend
    some interesting stories
    many intersting stories

    In this case an adjective is placed after a pronoun but before a noun. In such expressions we can use possesive (my, your,...), demonstrative (this, that...), indefinite (some, any,...) pronouns as well as many, much, little, few...

    Pay attention to the following: if we use a pronoun before a noun there shouldn't be any article.

    In fact, adjectives don't define pronouns. Pronouns define nouns, they don't need definition themselves.
  • Hi, Alex! Right is "I have been to India" or "I was in India last year". In the Present Perfect we use "to" instead of "in" in such kind of sentences. As to business letters, I've just started working with that course. But you can easily find such material right here, in the Club. Click "Learn English" on the top of the page and you will see the necessary options.

    Alexey said:
    Good evening, Tanya! How is correct: I have been to (or in) India. Thank you a lot.
    And one more. Do you have any exercises or lessons for writting commercial letters?
  • I don't mind to explain if you ask me more correct question. What is not clear about Gerund? You see, Gerung is a noun verb, i.e., a verb that explains progressive action. Do you mean so called "Gerund List" or how to use it or...? Please, make yourself clear, OK?

    Yohana Pebriola said:
    Hi Tanya,

    Would you like to explain to me about gerund?

    Thank you in advance for that.

    your sincerely,
    Yohana
  • Sorry! There were a few misprints. First of all "no cases", "negative prefixes", then "feel free to ask". I usually get tired by night. Excuse me.

    Tanya said:
    Hi, Salem! Thank you for your question. You see, there is no such an idea like an ergative verb in English (at least I don't know). "Ergative" means a special case of noun (maybe, verb) but not in English because there are ni cases.
    As to prefixes. There are a few negatine prefixes in English like: un-, dis, mis-, im-, in-, non- but there is no rule. The idea is that you have to know them by heart. If you don't use them the sentence will be affirmative, i.e.

    It was easy to find your house (I didn't have any problems)
    It was uneasy to find your house (I had great problems)

    If I haven't answered your question, feel fre ask me others.

    salem said:
    I would like to know about two things belonging to grammar.First, what are ergative verbs ? .
    Second ,Are there specific rules about affixes ?.I mean that it is known when we make a sentence like the following:He unhides himself very faster.I want to say can we put the following prefixes dis,de,none..etc instead of "un" without changing the meaning of the abovementioned sentence? or we cann't and why ?
  • Hi Tanya,

    Would you like to explain to me about gerund?

    Thank you in advance for that.

    your sincerely,
    Yohana
  • Hi, Salem! Thank you for your question. You see, there is no such an idea like an ergative verb in English (at least I don't know). "Ergative" means a special case of noun (maybe, verb) but not in English because there are ni cases.
    As to prefixes. There are a few negatine prefixes in English like: un-, dis, mis-, im-, in-, non- but there is no rule. The idea is that you have to know them by heart. If you don't use them the sentence will be affirmative, i.e.

    It was easy to find your house (I didn't have any problems)
    It was uneasy to find your house (I had great problems)

    If I haven't answered your question, feel fre ask me others.

    salem said:
    I would like to know about two things belonging to grammar.First, what are ergative verbs ? .
    Second ,Are there specific rules about affixes ?.I mean that it is known when we make a sentence like the following:He unhides himself very faster.I want to say can we put the following prefixes dis,de,none..etc instead of "un" without changing the meaning of the abovementioned sentence? or we cann't and why ?
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